CUET(PG) Biochemistry and Biotechnology Question Paper 2021 with Answer

CUET(PG) Biochemistry and Biotechnology Question Paper 2021 with Answer for the admission in M.Sc. in various Central Universities in India.

CUET(PG) Biochemistry and Biotechnology conducted by NTA
Exam held on 24.09.2021

1. Select the correct option:
You may feel relieved when something bad---

A. happens
B. does not happen
C. is remembered
D. occurs

Answer

B. does not happen

2. Select the most suitable synonym:
BARBARIAN

A. impolite
B. unkind
C. uncivilized
D. unlikenessv

Answer

C. uncivilized

3. Which is the closest meaning of the phrase to be hard of hearing?

A. deaf
B. deaf and dumb
C. careless
D. arrogant

Answer

A. deaf

4. Identify the meaning of the idiom from the options given:
in black and white

A. useless
B. in short
C. in writing
D. in full swing

Answer

C. in writing

5. Select the most suitable antonym:
RAPTURE

A. despair
B. elation
C. ecstasy
D. hell

Answer

A. despair

6. Complete the second sentence by selecting the appropriate option:
One way to improve your health is to eat more fruit and vegetables. Alternatively---

A. you could fall ill
B. you could go on diet
C. you could exercise more
D. you could increase risk of your heart diseasec

Answer

C. you could exercise more

7. Fill in the blank with right word:
An employee might be given a privilege as a form of

A. punishment
B. reward
C. increment
D. commendation

Answer

B. reward

8. Select the correct option for use of 'the':

A. the Delhi
B. the city of Delhi
C. the southern India
D. the long island

Answer

B. the city of Delhi

9. Fill in the blank with correct preposition:
I am worried --- exam

A. on
B. in
C. about
D. of

Answer

C. about

10. Identify the meaning of the idiom from the options given:
Hit the road

A. end the journey
B. an accident
C. begin the journey
D. happy times

Answer

C. begin the journey

11. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the expression?
4003 x 77 21015= ? x 116

A. 2467
B. 2476
C. 2477
D. 2478

Answer

B. 2476

12. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): For making statues, we are using bronze.
Reason (R): Through the mixing of copper and tin, we produce bronze.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

A Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Reason (R)
B. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
D. (A) is not correct, but (R) is corret

Answer

B. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

13. The sum of five numbers is 260. The average of the first two numbers is 30 and the average of the last two numbers is 70. What is the third number?

A. 40
B. 50
C. 55
D. 60

Answer

D. 60

14. Thirty-six workers can finish a piece of work in 14 days. If the work is to be completed in 8 days, how many extra workers are required?

A. 20
B. 23
C. 27
D. 29

Answer

C. 27

15. What should come in the blank space in the following number series?
0, 2, ---, 18, 32, 50

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

Answer

D. 8

16. Three of the four are alike in certain way based on the English alphabetical series and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A. WXST
B. HCDE
C. QRMN
D. IJEF

Answer

B. HCDE

17. If every alternate Saturdays and all Sundays are holidays in a 30 days month beginning on Saturday, then how many working days are there in that month?

A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 24

Answer

B. 22 and C. 23

18. Pointing to a woman in the photograph, Neetu said, "Her son's father is the son-in-law of my mother". How is Neetu related to the woman?

A. Mother
B. Sister
C. Aunt
D. Mother-in-law

Answer

B. Sister

19. Suneeta travelled 5 km towards east direction. She turned right and went for 3 km. Then she turned west and travelled for 1 km. How far is she from the starting point?

A. 3 km
B. 5 km
C. 9 km
D. 10 km

Answer

B. 5 km

20. In a certain code, TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER written in that code?

A. RMNBSFEJ
B. BNMRSFEJ
C. RMNBJEFS
D. TOPDQDCH

Answer

A. RMNBSFEJ

21. Whose creations are Harshacharita and Kadambari?

A. Kalhana
B. Panini
C. Banabhatta
D. Patanjali

Answer

C. Banabhatta

22. Present-day Istanbul in Turkey was earlier known as:

A. Ankara
B. Ottoman
C. Constantinople
D. Byzantine

Answer

C. Constantinople

23. Space X is:

A. an Indian autogiant
B. a movie on space
C. name of a spy agency
D. an American private space company

Answer

D. an American private space company

24. UN day is celebrated on:

A. 26th November
B. 24th November
C. 26th October
D. 24th October

Answer

D. 24th October

25. The famous novel, Middlemarch was written by:

A. George Eliot
B. William Wordsworth
C. William Shakespeare
D. Ruskin Bond

Answer

A. George Eliot

26. Which of the following Electronic transitions is not possible in UV-visible region?

A. n-π*
B. σ-σ*
С. π-π*
D. None of these

Answer

B. σ-σ*

27. Resolving power of a microscope mainly depends on:

A. Numerical aperture
B. Refractive index
C. Objective lens
D. Ocular lens

Answer

A. Numerical aperture

28. Which one of the following is not true according to Kasha's rule about fluorescence?

A. Bathochromic shift is observed in emission relative to absorption
B. Hypsochromic shift is observed in absorption relative to emission
C. Bathochromic shift is observed in absorption relative to emission
D. None of these

Answer

C. Bathochromic shift is observed in absorption relative to emission

29. In reverse-phase liquid chromatography, stationary phase is:

A. Polar
B. Non-polar
C. Hydrophilic
D. Ionic

Answer

B. Non-polar

30. Diethylaminomethyl (DEAE) cellulose is an anion exchanger. It will prefer to bind with proteins having:

A. No charge
B. Positive charge
C. Negative charge
D. Binding does not related to charge

Answer

C. Negative charge

31. Increase in the half-cell potential (E°):

A. Decreases the oxidizing ability
B. Increases the reducing ability
C. Increases the oxidizing ability
D. Increases the reaction spontaneity

Answer

C. Increases the oxidizing ability

32. Lowest yield of ATP is achieved in:

A. Fermentation
B. Anaerobic respiration
C. Aerobic respiration
D. Both 1 and 2

Answer

A. Fermentation

33. Which of the following is a molecular motor?

A. Kinesin
B. Kinetin
C. Keratin
D. Dynactin

Answer

A. Fermentation

34. The key driving force for membrane transport is:

A. Membrane thickness
B. Distance
C. Molecular size
D. Concentration gradient

Answer

D. Concentration gradient

35. Sedimentation rate of a particle will be zero when:

A. Density of the particle is less than surrounding medium
B. Density of the particle is more than the surrounding medium
C. Density of the particle and the surrounding medium are equal
D. Density of the particle is twice as the surrounding medium

Answer

C. Density of the particle and the surrounding medium are equal

36. 70s ribosome is made up of:

A. 50s and 30s subunits
B. 50s and 40s subunits
C. 60s and 30s subunits
D. 60s and 40s subunits

Answer

A. 50s and 30s subunits

37. For each ATP molecule breakdown, the Sodium-potassium pump causes movement of:

A. More Na⁺ out and less K⁺ in
B. K out and Nat in on a one-for-one basis
C. Nat out and K⁺ in on a one-for-one basis
D. K⁺ and Na⁺ in same direction

Answer

A. More Na⁺ out and less K⁺ in

38. The number of a Nuclear pore in a cell depends on the:

A. Size of the cell
B. Transcriptional activity of the cell
C. DNA content of the cell
D. None of these

Answer

B. Transcriptional activity of the cell

39. Which of the following is not a part of endomembrane system?

A. Golgi body
B. Lysosome
C. Ribosome
D. Vesicles

Answer

C. Ribosome

40. Michaelis-Menten constant (Km) is related to the:

A. Enzyme's affinity for the substrate
B. Enzyme's activity for the substrate
C. Enzyme's specificity for the substrate
D. Enzyme's selectivity for the substrate

Answer

A. Enzyme's affinity for the substrate

41. The organelle absent in plant cells is:

A. Vacuoles
B. Lysosome
C. Chloroplast
D. Centriole

Answer

D. Centriole

42. Which of the following is not associated with the extracellular matrix of the cells?

A. Proteoglycans
B. Cellulose
C. Collagen
D. Fibronectin

Answer

B. Cellulose

43. The enzyme responsible for removal of DNA supercoils is:

A. Helicase
B. Topoisomerase
C. DNA ligase
D. DNA polymerase

Answer

B. Topoisomerase

44. Which of the following is not a secondary messenger?

A. Calcium
C. CAMP
B. Diacylglycerol
D. AMP

Answer

D. AMP

45. Intramolecular rearrangements are catalyzed by:

A. Transferases
B. Oxidoreductases
C. Isomerases
D. Lyases

Answer

C. Isomerases

46. An enzyme without its required cofactor prosthetic group is referred as:

A. Coenzyme
B. Holoenzyme
C. Apoenzyme
D. Catalyst

Answer

C. Apoenzyme

47. Gram staining is based on the presence of in the cell wall.

A. Phospholipid
B. Peptidoglycan
C. Lipid A
D. Glycolipid

Answer

B. Peptidoglycan

48. Lipopolysaccharide present in Gram negative bacterial cell wall is considered as an endotoxin because of:

A. Lipid A
B. Core polysaccharide
C. O side chain
D. Integral proteins

Answer

A. Lipid A

49. Antibacterial action of penicillin could be attributed to:

A. Inhibition of the enzyme transpeptidase
B. Inhibition of the cross linking of peptidoglycan side chain
C. Hydrolysis of peptidoglycan
D. Both A and B

Answer

D. Both A and B

50. Severe acute respiratory syndrome Coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) is caused by a:

A. Single-stranded RNA virus
B. Double-stranded RNA virus
C. Single-stranded DNA virus
D. Double-stranded DNA virus

Answer

A. Single-stranded RNA virus

51. For exergonic reactions:

A. ΔG^o (standard free energy change) is negative and K_eq (equilibrium constant) is more than one
B. ΔG^o is positive and K_eq is more than one
C. ΔG^o is negative and K_eq is less than one
D. ΔG^o is positive and K_eq is less than one

Answer

A. ΔG^o (standard free energy change) is negative and K_eq (equilibrium constant) is more than one

52. 2-keto-3-deoxy-6-phosphogluconate is an intermediate of:

A. Pentose phosphate pathway
B. Entner-Doudoroff Pathway
C. Embden-Meyerhof Pathway
D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle

Answer

B. Entner-Doudoroff Pathway

53. Product of dissimilatory nitrate reduction is:

A. ammonia
B. nitrogen
C. nitrate
D. nitric oxide

Answer

A. ammonia

54. Which of the following is not a type of microtubule associated with mitotic spindle?

A. Polar
B. Astral
C. Central
D. Kinetochore

Answer

C. Central

55. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of prophase-I stage?

A. Leptotene, Pachytene, Zygotene, Diplotene, Diakinesis
B. Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diakinesis, Diplotene
C. Zygotene, Leptotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis
D. Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis

Answer

D. Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis

56. Histones are rich in:

A. Lysine and Arginine
B. Lysine and Asparagine
C. Glycine and Lysine
D. Leucine and Arginine

Answer

A. Lysine and Arginine

57. Which one of the following is not true for euchromatin?

A. They are transcriptionally active
B. They are less condensed regions of chromosomes
C. Barr body is an example of euchromatin
D. All of these

Answer

C. Barr body is an example of euchromatin

58. Proteins responsible for structural maintenance of chromosomes are:

A. Condensin
B. Cohesin
C. Collagen
D. Both A and B

Answer

D. Both A and B

59. Activity of protein kinase A is regulated by:

A. Adenylyl cyclase
B. Phosphodiesterase
C. Phospholipase C
D. Phosphorylase kinase

Answer

A. Adenylyl cyclase

60. Pectin is a polymer of:

A. Glucose
B. Glucuronic acid
C. Galacturonic acid
D. Iduronic acid

Answer

C. Galacturonic acid

61. Triple-helical coiled coil structure is characteristic of:

A. Cellulose
B. Collagen
C. Elastin
D. Chymotrypsin

Answer

B. Collagen

62. Which one of the following is not true for sliding filament model?

A. Shortening of I-band and H-zone with no effect on A-band
B. Shortening of I-band A-band and H-zone
C. No change in I-band and H-zone with shortening of A-band
D. Shortening of I-band and A-band with no effect on H-zone

Answer

A. Shortening of I-band and H-zone with no effect on A-band

63. Which of the following proteins is associated with amphibian development?

A. Collagen
B. Catenin
C. Fibrin
D. Keratin

Answer

B. Catenin

64. Which of the following is not a pattern of cell movement during gastrulation?

A. Ingression
B. Epiboly
C. Invasion
D. Invagination

Answer

C. Invasion

65. Amphibian eggs undergo:

A. Equal radial holoblastic cleavage
B. Unequal radial holoblastic cleavage
C. Equal radial meroblastic cleavage
D. Unequal radial meroblastic cleavage

Answer

B. Unequal radial holoblastic cleavage

66. Which of the following is not true for master regulatory transcription factors?

A. Must be expressed when the specification of a cell type begins
B. Must regulate the expression of genes specific to that cell type
C. Must be able to redirect a cell's fate to this cell type
D. Must be expressed when the specification of a cell type ends

Answer

D. Must be expressed when the specification of a cell type ends

67. Difference between chromatin regulation by high and low CpG promoters is:

A. High CpG content promoters repressed gene by DNA methylation
B. Low CpG content promoters repressed gene by histone methylation
C. High CpG content promoters repressed gene by histone methylation
D. Low CpG content promoters repressed gene by histone acetylation

Answer

C. High CpG content promoters repressed gene by histone methylation

68. NRSE stands for:

A. Notochord restrictive silencer element
B. Neural ectodermal specification enhancer
C. Neural restrictive specification enhancer
D. Neuron-restrictive silencer elements

Answer

D. Neuron-restrictive silencer elements

69. Which substance determines the type of cleavage during development?

A. Nucleus
B. Cytoplasm
C. Yolk
D. Both A and B

Answer

C. Yolk

70. Which of the following are not true for Karl Ernst von Baer's principles?
(a) General features of a large group of animals appear earlier in development as compared to the specialized features of a smaller group
(b) General features of a large group of animals appear later in development as compared to the specialized features of a smaller group
(c) Early embryo of a higher animal is look like a lower animal
(d) Early embryo of a higher animal is look like embryo of a lower animal

A. (a) and (c)
B. (b) and (c)
C. (b) and (d)
D. (a) and (d)

Answer

B. (b) and (c)

71. Enzymes involved in RNA interference are:

A. Dicer
B. Cohesin
C. Bicoid
D. Maskin

Answer

A. Dicer

72. CRISPR is:

A. Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
B. Coordinated Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
C. Clustered Restrictive Interspaced Short Palindromic Regions
D. Coordinated Restrictive Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats

Answer

A. Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats

73. Ramachandran plot is:

A. Used for determination of stable protein structures
B. Also called as - plot
C. Provide information about sterically favorable conformations
D. All of these

Answer

D. All of these

74. Dextrans are:

A. Polymeric glucose
B. Polymeric galactose
C. Polymeric fructose D. Polymeric lactose

Answer

A. Polymeric glucose

75. According to Bohr effect the oxygen transport ability of hemoglobin is more when:

A. pH decreases
B. pH increases
C. pH remains stable
D. It is not affected by pH

Answer

A. pH decreases

76. Cells are small in size because:

A. It provides more surface area to volume ratio
B. It provides less surface area to volume ratio C. Provides better regulation of cytoplasm by nucleus
D. Both A and B

Answer

A. It provides more surface area to volume ratio

77. Protein purification in 2-dimentional gel electrophoresis is based on:

A. Molecular weight
B. Charge
C. Number of subunits
D. Both A and B

Answer

D. Both A and B

78. enzyme catalyzes conversion of fructose to fructose-6-phosphate requires as cofactor.

A. Phosphofructokinase-I, Mg⁺²
B. Phosphofructokinase-II, Mg⁺²
C. Phosphofructokinase-I, Mn⁺²
D. Phosphofructokinase-II, Mn⁺²

Answer

A. Phosphofructokinase-I, Mg⁺²

79. Which of the following is not a possible catabolic fate of pyruvate?

A. Lactic acid fermentation
B. Citric acid cycle
C. Ethanol fermentation
D. Glycolysis

Answer

D. Glycolysis

80. Allosterically regulated enzymes are

A. Oligomeric proteins
B. Possess regulatory and catalytic domains
C. Shows sigmoidal behaviour
D. Both B and C

Answer

D. Both B and C

81. Which of the following regulation occurs in slowest time frame?

A. Feedback regulation
B. Allosteric regulation
C. Regulation through covalent modification
D. Enzyme synthesis through gene induction

Answer

C. Regulation through covalent modification

82. The unit of maximum specific growth rate (max) is: -1

A. Hours
B. Hours
C. Hours/litre
D. Hours/cell

Answer

A. Hours

83. Mammals do not have ability to convert fatty acids to glucose because:

A. They cannot undergo glyoxylate cycle
B. There is no need for such conversion
C. They can obtain glucose from other pathways
D. Both A and C

Answer

A. They cannot undergo glyoxylate cycle

84. Formation of glycogen cannot be initiated in the absence of enzyme:

A. Glucokinase
B. Glycogenin
C. Glycogen phosphorylase
D. Glycogen kinase

Answer

B. Glycogenin

85. Glucose sensors utilizes

A. Glucose oxidase
B. Glucose kinase
C. Glucose dehydrogenase
D. Both A and C

Answer

D. Both A and C

86. Optical density is based on

A. Light refraction
B. Light adsorption
C. Light diffraction
D. Light scattering

Answer

D. Light scattering

87. Purity of DNA samples can be checked by measuring the ratio of absorbances at 260 and 280 nm. For a pure DNA sample the ratio should be:

A. 1.8
B. < 1.8
C. < 1.0
D. > 2

Answer

A. 1.8

88. ATP molecules produced by oxidation of one molecule of palmitoyl-CoA to CO, and H₂O are:

A. 38
B. 108
C. 148
D. 40

Answer

B. 108

89. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (first enzyme in urea cycle) is allosterically regulated by:

A. N-acetylglutamate
B. N-acetylglucosamine
C. N-acetylgalactosamine
D. N-acetylglucomate

Answer

A. N-acetylglutamate

90. Phenylketonuria is caused by dysfunction of:

A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
B. Phenylalanine monooxygenase
C. Phenylalanine mutase
D. Phenylalanine dioxygenase

Answer

A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase

91. Key protein involved in complement activation is:

A. C5
C. C9
B. C8
D. C3

Answer

D. C3

92. Separation of components in gas chromatography is based on:

A. Molecular weight
B. Partition coefficient
C. Molarity
D. Conductivity

Answer

B. Partition coefficient

93. Pervaporation is:

A. Ion removal
B. Separation of liquids
C. Separation of solids
D. Water purification

Answer

B. Separation of liquids

94. Obligate anaerobes are not able to survive in the presence of oxygen because of

A. Absence of both catalase and superoxide
B. Presence of both catalase and superoxide
C. Presence of catalase but absence of superoxide dismutase
D. Presence of low levels of both catalase and superoxide dismutase

Answer

A. Absence of both catalase and superoxide

95. Which of the following sentences is not true for pyrosequencing?

A. It is based on detection of pulses of chemiluminescence
B. Requires the activity of enzyme sulfurylase
C. Requires addition of dideoxynucleotides
D. None of these

Answer

C. Requires addition of dideoxynucleotides

96. Match the List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

a. Translation I. Nucleus

b. Replication II. Mitochondria

c. ATP Synthesis III. Stroma

d. Dark reaction of photosynthesis IV. Cytoplasm

List-I	List-II
a. Translation	I. Nucleus
b. Replication	II. Mitochondria
c. ATP Synthesis	III. Stroma
d. Dark reaction of photosynthesis	IV. Cytoplasm

A. a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
B. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
C. a-IV, b-II, c-III, d-I
D. a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III

Answer

D. a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III

97. Impermeability of mitochondrial inner membrane to most ion, electrons and protons is due to the presence of:

A. Cardiolipin
B. Collagen
C. Chitin
D. Cellulose

Answer

A. Cardiolipin

98. Lateral root primordia are developed from:

A. Pericycle
B. Endodermis
C. Ectodermis
D. Xylem

Answer

A. Pericycle

99. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used for transformation in plant tissue culture because:

A. Both Agrobacterium and plants have similar genetic make-up
B. Agrobacterium genomic DNA can transfer its genetic material to plants
C. vir genes of Agrobacterium aid in T-DNA transfer to plants
D. All of these

Answer

A. Both Agrobacterium and plants have similar genetic make-up

100. Mutation in the class A genes in ABCDE model of flower development leads to whichpattern of floral organization?

A. Sepal-sepal-carpel-petal
B. Petal-carpel-sepal-sepal
C. Carpel-stamen-stamen-carpel
D. Stamen-petal-petal-sepal

Answer

C. Carpel-stamen-stamen-carpel

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CUET(PG) Biochemistry and Biotechnology Question Paper 2021 with Answer

CUET(PG) Biochemistry and Biotechnology Question Paper 2021 with Answer