Exam Pattern Overview
| Total Questions | Questions to Attempt | Duration | Type | Marking Scheme |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 50 | 40 | 60 minutes | MCQs | +5 (Correct) -1 (Incorrect) |
Q1. Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?
| A) CH3CH2OH | B) CH3OCH3 | C) CH3CH2CH3 | D) CH3CHO |
Answer: A) CH3CH2OH
Short Explanation: Ethanol (CH3CH2OH) has strong hydrogen bonding, which significantly raises its boiling point compared to the other molecules listed.
Short Explanation: Ethanol (CH3CH2OH) has strong hydrogen bonding, which significantly raises its boiling point compared to the other molecules listed.
Q2. In the Nernst equation, how does temperature affect electrode potential?
| A) No effect | B) Increases with temperature | C) Decreases with temperature | D) May increase or decrease depending on reaction |
Answer: D) May increase or decrease depending on reaction
Short Explanation: The Nernst equation includes temperature (T), so the electrode potential depends on the value and direction of entropy change (ΔS), varying from case to case.
Short Explanation: The Nernst equation includes temperature (T), so the electrode potential depends on the value and direction of entropy change (ΔS), varying from case to case.
Q3. Identify the correct IUPAC name for the compound: CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2-CH3
| A) 2-Methylpropane | B) Pentane | C) 3-Methylbutane | D) 2-Methylbutane |
Answer: D) 2-Methylbutane
Short Explanation: The structure is a butane chain with a methyl group at C-2, giving the name 2-methylbutane.
Short Explanation: The structure is a butane chain with a methyl group at C-2, giving the name 2-methylbutane.
Q4. Which ion has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
| A) Fe2+ | B) Cr3+ | C) Mn2+ | D) Ni2+ |
Answer: C) Mn2+
Short Explanation: Mn2+ has 3d5 configuration, meaning 5 unpaired electrons, while the other ions have fewer.
Short Explanation: Mn2+ has 3d5 configuration, meaning 5 unpaired electrons, while the other ions have fewer.
Q5. Which of the following reactions is used to convert alcohols to alkyl halides?
| A) Wurtz reaction | B) Sandmeyer reaction | C) Lucas test | D) Kolbe reaction |
Answer: C) Lucas test
Short Explanation: Lucas reagent distinguishes alcohol classes and converts alcohols to alkyl halides using ZnCl2/HCl.
Short Explanation: Lucas reagent distinguishes alcohol classes and converts alcohols to alkyl halides using ZnCl2/HCl.
Q6. Which of the following is not a colligative property?
| A) Boiling point elevation | B) Freezing point depression | C) Osmotic pressure | D) Viscosity |
Answer: D) Viscosity
Short Explanation: Viscosity depends on the nature of solute, not on the number of solute particles, so it's not a colligative property.
Short Explanation: Viscosity depends on the nature of solute, not on the number of solute particles, so it's not a colligative property.
Q7. The rate constant (k) for a first-order reaction has unit:
| A) mol L-1 s-1 | B) s-1 | C) L mol-1 s-1 | D) No unit |
Answer: B) s-1
Short Explanation: For a first-order reaction, rate constant (k) has the unit s-1 as per the rate law equation.
Short Explanation: For a first-order reaction, rate constant (k) has the unit s-1 as per the rate law equation.
Q8. The color of [Ni(CO)4] is:
| A) Blue | B) Green | C) Brown | D) Colorless |
Answer: D) Colorless
Short Explanation: Nickel carbonyl ([Ni(CO)4]) is a colorless, volatile liquid due to complete pairing of electrons.
Short Explanation: Nickel carbonyl ([Ni(CO)4]) is a colorless, volatile liquid due to complete pairing of electrons.
Q9. Van’t Hoff factor (i) for Na2SO4 is:
| A) 1 | B) 2 | C) 3 | D) 4 |
Answer: C) 3
Short Explanation: Na2SO4 dissociates into 2Na+ and SO42-, so number of particles = 3, hence i = 3.
Short Explanation: Na2SO4 dissociates into 2Na+ and SO42-, so number of particles = 3, hence i = 3.
Q10. The coordination number of central metal ion in [Fe(CN)6]4– is:
| A) 4 | B) 5 | C) 6 | D) 3 |
Answer: C) 6
Short Explanation: Each CN– ligand is monodentate, so six coordinate bonds form with Fe, making coordination number 6.
Short Explanation: Each CN– ligand is monodentate, so six coordinate bonds form with Fe, making coordination number 6.
Q11. The product formed when acetone reacts with 2,4-DNP is:
| A) An orange precipitate | B) A yellow gas | C) A silver mirror | D) White crystals |
Answer: A) An orange precipitate
Short Explanation: 2,4-Dinitrophenylhydrazine reacts with carbonyls like acetone to form an orange-yellow hydrazone precipitate.
Short Explanation: 2,4-Dinitrophenylhydrazine reacts with carbonyls like acetone to form an orange-yellow hydrazone precipitate.
Q12. Which of the following correctly describes a solution exhibiting the Tyndall effect?
| A) True solution | B) Colloid | C) Suspension | D) Pure liquid |
Answer: B) Colloid
Short Explanation: The Tyndall effect (scattering of light) is characteristic of colloidal solutions due to their particle size.
Short Explanation: The Tyndall effect (scattering of light) is characteristic of colloidal solutions due to their particle size.
Q13. Which of the following metal ions shows the maximum magnetic moment?
| A) Fe2+ | B) Co2+ | C) Mn2+ | D) Ni2+ |
Answer: C) Mn2+
Short Explanation: Mn2+ (3d5) has 5 unpaired electrons, giving the highest magnetic moment among these.
Short Explanation: Mn2+ (3d5) has 5 unpaired electrons, giving the highest magnetic moment among these.
Q14. Identify the pair which forms a nearly ideal solution:
| A) Benzene and Toluene | B) Acetone and Water | C) HCl and Water | D) Acetic acid and Chloroform |
Answer: A) Benzene and Toluene
Short Explanation: Ideal solutions form when intermolecular forces between components are nearly equal, as for benzene and toluene.
Short Explanation: Ideal solutions form when intermolecular forces between components are nearly equal, as for benzene and toluene.
Q15. An SN2 reaction on chiral alkyl halide results in:
| A) Retention of configuration | B) Racemization | C) Inversion of configuration | D) No change |
Answer: C) Inversion of configuration
Short Explanation: SN2 causes a backside attack, flipping the configuration (Walden inversion) at the chiral center.
Short Explanation: SN2 causes a backside attack, flipping the configuration (Walden inversion) at the chiral center.
Q16. The correct order of basicity among the following is:
| A) Aniline < Ethylamine < Ammonia | B) Ethylamine > Ammonia > Aniline | C) Ammonia > Ethylamine > Aniline | D) Aniline > Ethylamine > Ammonia |
Answer: B) Ethylamine > Ammonia > Aniline
Short Explanation: Alkylamines are more basic than ammonia, and aniline is less basic due to resonance delocalization.
Short Explanation: Alkylamines are more basic than ammonia, and aniline is less basic due to resonance delocalization.
Q17. What is the product of hydrolysis of cellulose?
| A) Starch | B) Fructose | C) Glucose | D) Sucrose |
Answer: C) Glucose
Short Explanation: Hydrolysis of cellulose yields β-D-glucose molecules.
Short Explanation: Hydrolysis of cellulose yields β-D-glucose molecules.
Q18. What is the IUPAC name of meta-cresol?
| A) 3-Methylphenol | B) 2-Methylphenol | C) 4-Methylphenol | D) 1,3-Dimethylbenzene |
Answer: A) 3-Methylphenol
Short Explanation: Meta-cresol is the common name for 3-methylphenol.
Short Explanation: Meta-cresol is the common name for 3-methylphenol.
Q19. Swarts reaction is used to prepare:
| A) Primary alcohol | B) Alkyl fluorides | C) Ether | D) Nitroalkanes |
Answer: B) Alkyl fluorides
Short Explanation: Swarts reaction converts alkyl halides to alkyl fluorides using AgF, SbF3, etc..
Short Explanation: Swarts reaction converts alkyl halides to alkyl fluorides using AgF, SbF3, etc..
Q20. The hybridisation of the central atom in [Ni(CN)4]2– is:
| A) dsp2 | B) sp3 | C) sp3d | D) d2sp3 |
Answer: A) dsp2
Short Explanation: [Ni(CN)4]2– is square planar and involves dsp2 hybridization.
Short Explanation: [Ni(CN)4]2– is square planar and involves dsp2 hybridization.
Q21. Which law explains the volume relationship between gases in a chemical reaction?
| A) Avogadro’s law | B) Gay-Lussac’s law | C) Boyle’s law | D) Charles’ law |
Answer: B) Gay-Lussac’s law
Short Explanation: Gay-Lussac’s law of combining volumes deals with simple ratios between volumes of reactant and product gases under constant temperature and pressure.
Short Explanation: Gay-Lussac’s law of combining volumes deals with simple ratios between volumes of reactant and product gases under constant temperature and pressure.
Q22. Which property is NOT used to identify a primary, secondary, or tertiary alcohol?
| A) Lucas Test | B) Reaction with Na | C) Oxidation reactions | D) Victor Meyer’s Test |
Answer: B) Reaction with Na
Short Explanation: All alcohols react with metallic Na to form hydrogen, so this test cannot distinguish between alcohol classes.
Short Explanation: All alcohols react with metallic Na to form hydrogen, so this test cannot distinguish between alcohol classes.
Q23. What is the standard enthalpy of formation (ΔHf°) of O2(g)?
| A) +286 kJ mol-1 | B) -393.5 kJ mol-1 | C) 0 kJ mol-1 | D) -286 kJ mol-1 |
Answer: C) 0 kJ mol-1
Short Explanation: The enthalpy of formation for elemental oxygen (O2) in its standard state is defined as zero.
Short Explanation: The enthalpy of formation for elemental oxygen (O2) in its standard state is defined as zero.
Q24. The oxidation state of S in K2S2O8 is:
| A) +6 | B) +7 | C) +4 | D) +8 |
Answer: A) +7
Short Explanation: For peroxodisulfate ion (S2O82-), S oxidation state is +7 based on the charge balance.
Short Explanation: For peroxodisulfate ion (S2O82-), S oxidation state is +7 based on the charge balance.
Q25. Splitting of d-orbitals in octahedral field results in:
| A) Two sets: eg (higher), t2g (lower) | B) Two sets: eg (lower), t2g (higher) | C) Three sets | D) Five sets |
Answer: A) Two sets: eg (higher), t2g (lower)
Short Explanation: In an octahedral crystal field, d-orbitals split into two sets: t2g (lower) and eg (higher) energy levels.
Short Explanation: In an octahedral crystal field, d-orbitals split into two sets: t2g (lower) and eg (higher) energy levels.
Q26. Which reagent converts benzene into nitrobenzene?
| A) HNO3 + H2SO4 | B) Br2 + Fe | C) HCl + AlCl3 | D) KMnO4 |
Answer: A) HNO3 + H2SO4
Short Explanation: Nitration of benzene requires a mixture of concentrated HNO3 and H2SO4.
Short Explanation: Nitration of benzene requires a mixture of concentrated HNO3 and H2SO4.
Q27. The correct structure for aspirin is:
| A) Methyl salicylate | B) Acetyl salicylic acid | C) p-Aminophenol | D) Benzaldehyde |
Answer: B) Acetyl salicylic acid
Short Explanation: Aspirin is acetylated salicylic acid; its IUPAC name is 2-acetoxybenzoic acid.
Short Explanation: Aspirin is acetylated salicylic acid; its IUPAC name is 2-acetoxybenzoic acid.
Q28. Which gas is evolved when Zn reacts with dilute H2SO4?
| A) O2 | B) SO2 | C) H2 | D) NO2 |
Answer: C) H2
Short Explanation: Zn displaces hydrogen from H2SO4, liberating H2 gas.
Short Explanation: Zn displaces hydrogen from H2SO4, liberating H2 gas.
Q29. Which among the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?
| A) CO2 | B) CH4 | C) N2 | D) O3 |
Answer: C) N2
Short Explanation: Nitrogen (N2) does not absorb infrared radiation and is not a greenhouse gas.
Short Explanation: Nitrogen (N2) does not absorb infrared radiation and is not a greenhouse gas.
Q30. Which is a correct statement about enzyme catalysis?
| A) Enzymes are consumed in reactions | B) Enzymes work in any temperature | C) Enzymes lower activation energy | D) Enzymes are always proteins |
Answer: C) Enzymes lower activation energy
Short Explanation: Enzymes act as biological catalysts by lowering the activation energy; statement D is usually correct but not universally so (ribozymes exist).
Short Explanation: Enzymes act as biological catalysts by lowering the activation energy; statement D is usually correct but not universally so (ribozymes exist).
Q31. Which is the correct increasing order of atomic radius?
| A) F < O < N < C | B) C < N < O < F | C) N < O < C < F | D) O < N < F < C |
Answer: A) F < O < N < C
Short Explanation: In a period, atomic size decreases left to right; thus, C > N > O > F.
Short Explanation: In a period, atomic size decreases left to right; thus, C > N > O > F.
Q32. The number of lone pairs on the central atom in ICl3 is:
| A) 1 | B) 2 | C) 0 | D) 3 |
Answer: B) 2
Short Explanation: Iodine in ICl3 has 5 pairs (3 bonds + 2 lone pairs).
Short Explanation: Iodine in ICl3 has 5 pairs (3 bonds + 2 lone pairs).
Q33. Reaction of ethene with cold KMnO4 produces:
| A) Glycol | B) Ethanol | C) Acetic acid | D) Methanol |
Answer: A) Glycol
Short Explanation: Ethene is hydroxylated by cold, dilute KMnO4 to ethylene glycol (vicinal diol).
Short Explanation: Ethene is hydroxylated by cold, dilute KMnO4 to ethylene glycol (vicinal diol).
Q34. Which ionic compound has the greatest lattice energy?
| A) NaCl | B) CsI | C) MgO | D) CaO |
Answer: C) MgO
Short Explanation: MgO has highly charged small ions (Mg2+, O2–) yielding high lattice energy.
Short Explanation: MgO has highly charged small ions (Mg2+, O2–) yielding high lattice energy.
Q35. Tetrahedral geometry is shown by:
| A) BF3 | B) NH3 | C) CH4 | D) SF6 |
Answer: C) CH4
Short Explanation: Methane (CH4) has sp3 hybridization and tetrahedral geometry.
Short Explanation: Methane (CH4) has sp3 hybridization and tetrahedral geometry.
Q36. The main ore of aluminium is:
| A) Magnetite | B) Bauxite | C) Siderite | D) Malachite |
Answer: B) Bauxite
Short Explanation: Bauxite (Al2O3·2H2O) is the chief ore of aluminium.
Short Explanation: Bauxite (Al2O3·2H2O) is the chief ore of aluminium.
Q37. Isotonic solutions have:
| A) Same solvent | B) Same boiling point | C) Same osmotic pressure | D) Same freezing point |
Answer: C) Same osmotic pressure
Short Explanation: Solutions with equal osmotic pressure are called isotonic.
Short Explanation: Solutions with equal osmotic pressure are called isotonic.
Q38. The compound used in the manufacture of bleaching powder is:
| A) CaCO3 | B) CaO | C) CaSO4 | D) CaC2 |
Answer: B) CaO
Short Explanation: Quicklime (CaO) is reacted with Cl2 to produce bleaching powder (CaOCl2).
Short Explanation: Quicklime (CaO) is reacted with Cl2 to produce bleaching powder (CaOCl2).
Q39. An example of biodegradable polymer is:
| A) Nylon-6,6 | B) PET | C) PHBV | D) PVC |
Answer: C) PHBV
Short Explanation: PHBV (Poly-β-hydroxybutyrate-co-β-hydroxyvalerate) is a biodegradable polymer.
Short Explanation: PHBV (Poly-β-hydroxybutyrate-co-β-hydroxyvalerate) is a biodegradable polymer.
Q40. How many chiral centers are there in glucose?
| A) 2 | B) 3 | C) 4 | D) 6 |
Answer: C) 4
Short Explanation: Glucose has four asymmetric carbon atoms (chiral centers).
Short Explanation: Glucose has four asymmetric carbon atoms (chiral centers).
Q41. Which of these acts as both oxidizing and reducing agent?
| A) H2O | B) H2S | C) SO2 | D) NaCl |
Answer: C) SO2
Short Explanation: Sulphur dioxide can both gain and lose electrons, so it acts as both an oxidant and reductant.
Short Explanation: Sulphur dioxide can both gain and lose electrons, so it acts as both an oxidant and reductant.
Q42. The molecular shape of XeF2 is:
| A) Linear | B) Bent | C) Square planar | D) Trigonal bipyramidal |
Answer: A) Linear
Short Explanation: Xenon difluoride (XeF2) features a linear shape due to the arrangement of three lone pairs and two bond pairs.
Short Explanation: Xenon difluoride (XeF2) features a linear shape due to the arrangement of three lone pairs and two bond pairs.
Q43. What is the mass of 1 mole of CaCO3?
| A) 40 g | B) 60 g | C) 100 g | D) 80 g |
Answer: C) 100 g
Short Explanation: Molar mass = 40 (Ca) + 12 (C) + 48 (O) = 100 g/mol.
Short Explanation: Molar mass = 40 (Ca) + 12 (C) + 48 (O) = 100 g/mol.
Q44. What is the product in Hoffmann bromamide reaction?
| A) Primary amine | B) Secondary amine | C) Nitro compound | D) Amide |
Answer: A) Primary amine
Short Explanation: An amide reacts with bromine and caustic soda in the Hoffmann reaction to yield a primary amine.
Short Explanation: An amide reacts with bromine and caustic soda in the Hoffmann reaction to yield a primary amine.
Q45. The main constituent gas of biogas is:
| A) CO2 | B) H2 | C) CH4 | D) C2H6 |
Answer: C) CH4
Short Explanation: Methane (CH4) is the main component of biogas.
Short Explanation: Methane (CH4) is the main component of biogas.
Q46. The correct order of acid strength is:
| A) HCl > H2SO4 > HNO3 | B) HNO3 > HCl > H2SO4 | C) HCl > HNO3 > H2SO4 | D) H2SO4 > HCl > HNO3 |
Answer: A) HCl > H2SO4 > HNO3
Short Explanation: Among these, hydrochloric acid is the strongest, then sulphuric, then nitric.
Short Explanation: Among these, hydrochloric acid is the strongest, then sulphuric, then nitric.
Q47. The essential amino acid is:
| A) Glycine | B) Alanine | C) Valine | D) Glutamic acid |
Answer: C) Valine
Short Explanation: Valine is not synthesized by the human body; hence, it is essential.
Short Explanation: Valine is not synthesized by the human body; hence, it is essential.
Q48. In lead storage battery, the anode is made of:
| A) Pb | B) PbO2 | C) PbSO4 | D) Graphite |
Answer: A) Pb
Short Explanation: The anode (negative plate) in a lead-acid battery is made of lead (Pb).
Short Explanation: The anode (negative plate) in a lead-acid battery is made of lead (Pb).
Q49. The colour of permanganate ion is:
| A) Green | B) Purple | C) Blue | D) Amber |
Answer: B) Purple
Short Explanation: KMnO4 is purple due to charge transfer transitions in MnO4-.
Short Explanation: KMnO4 is purple due to charge transfer transitions in MnO4-.
Q50. The total number of sigma bonds in benzene is:
| A) 9 | B) 12 | C) 15 | D) 6 |
Answer: B) 12
Short Explanation: Benzene has 6 C–C sigma, 6 C–H sigma, and 3 C=C pi bonds (which do not count as sigma), so total sigma bonds = 12.
Short Explanation: Benzene has 6 C–C sigma, 6 C–H sigma, and 3 C=C pi bonds (which do not count as sigma), so total sigma bonds = 12.
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