CUET UG Chemistry Question Paper 2023

CUET UG Chemistry Question Paper 2023

CUET UG Chemistry Question Paper 2023

Common University Entrance Test (CUET (UG) - 2023)

The Common University Entrance Test (CUET (UG) - 2023) is being introduced for admission into all UG Programmes in all Central Universities for academic session 2023-24 under the Ministry of Education, (MoE). The Common University Entrance Test (CUET) will provide a common platform and equal opportunities to candidates across the country, especially those from rural and other remote areas and help establish better connect with the Universities. A single examination will enable the Candidates to cover a wide outreach and be part of the admissions process to various Central Universities.

CUET Chemistry Question Paper 2023

1. An alloy of copper, silver and gold is found to have copper constituting the ccp lattice. If silver atoms occupy the edge centres and gold is present at the body centre, the alloy has a formula

A. Cu4Ag2Au
B. Cu4Ag4Au
C. Cu4Ag3Au
D. CuAgAu
AnswerC. Cu4Ag3Au

2. Copper crystallizes in fcc with a unit cell length of 361 pm. what is the radius of copper atom?

A. 157 pm
B. 181 pm
C. 127 pm
D. 108 pm
AnswerC. 127 pm

3. Alkali halides do not show Frenkel defect because

A. Cations and anions have almost equal size
B. There is large difference in size of cations and anions
C. Cations and anions have low coordination number
D. Anions cannot be accommodated in voids
AnswerA. Cations and anions have almost equal size

4. A solution of urea (mol. mass 56 g mol-1) boils at 100.18°C at atmospheric pressure. If Kf and Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.512 K kg mol-1, respectively, the above solution will freeze at

A. -0.654°C
B. 0.654°C
C. -6.54°C
D. 6.54°C
AnswerA. -0.654°C

5. The solubility of a gas in liquid decreases with an increase in temperature because

A. Dissolution of a gas in liquid is an endothermic process
B. Dissolution of a gas in liquid is an exothermic process
C. Gases are highly compressible
D. All of the above
AnswerB. Dissolution of a gas in liquid is an exothermic process

6. Assertion: The solubility of any gas in any liquid is an exothermic process.
Reason: All the gas are highly soluble in any liquid.

A. Both Assertion and reason  are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect
D. Both assertion and reason are incorrect
AnswerC. Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect

7. Given below are the standard electrode potentials of few half-cells. The correct order of these metals in increasing reducing power will be
K +|K = –2.93 V, Ag+|Ag = 0.80 V
Mg 2+|Mg = –2.37 V, Cr3+|Cr = –0.74 V.

A. K < Mg < Cr < Ag
B. Ag < Cr < Mg < K
C. Mg < K < Cr < Ag
D. Cr < Ag < Mg < K
AnsweB. Ag < Cr < Mg < K

8. The amount of charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of MnO4 to Mn2+ is

A. 4.8 x 105 C
B. 3.2 x 106 C
C. 1.8 x 105 C
D. 4.1 x 104 C
AnswerA. 4.8 x 105 C

9. The pressure of H2 required to make potential of H2-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is

A. 10-12 atm
B. 10-10 atm
C. 10-4 atm
D. 10-14 atm
AnswerD. 10-14 atm

10. The unit of rate and rate constant are same for a

A. zero order reaction
B. first order reaction
C. second order reaction
D. third order reaction
AnswerA. zero order reaction

11. If the volume of vessel in which the reaction 2NO + O2 → 2NO2 is occurring is diminished to 1/3rd of its initial volume. The rate of the reaction will be increased by

A. 3 times 
B. 6 times
C. 27 times
D. 30 times
AnswerC. 27 times

12. KMnO4 acts as an oxidizing agent in alkaline medium. When alkaline KMnO4 is treated with KI, iodide ion is oxidized to

A. I2
B. IO
C. IO3
D. IO4
AnswerC. IO3

13. The magnetic moment is associated with its spin angular momentum and orbital angular momentum. Spin only magnetic moment value of Cr3+ ion is

A. 2.87 B.M.
B. 3.87 B.M.
C. 3.47 B.M.
D. 3.57 B.M
AnswerB. 3.87 B.M.

14. Arrange the following in increasing value of magnetic moments.
i .[Fe(CN)6]4– 
ii. [Fe(CN)6]3–
iii. [Cr(NH3)6]3+ 
iv. [Ni(H2O)4]3+

A. (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
B. (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii)
C. (ii) < (iii) < (i) < (iv)
D. (iii) < (i) < (ii) < (iv)
AnswerB. (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii)

15. Zone refining is based on the principle that

A. impurities of low boiling metals can be separated by distillation.
B. impurities are more soluble in molten metal than in solid metal.
C. different components of a mixture are differently adsorbed on an adosrbent.
D. vapours of volatile compound can be decomposed in pure metal
AnswerB. impurities are more soluble in molten metal than in solid metal.

16. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Cast iron is obtained by remelting pig iron with scrap and coke using hot air blast
B. In the extraction of silver, silver is extracted as a cationic complex
C. Nickel is purified by zone refining
D. Zr, Ti are purified by the van Arkel method
AnswerD. Zr, Ti are purified by the van Arkel method

17. The use of aspartame is limited to cold foods and drinks because

A. It is unstable to heat and decomposes at cooking temperature
B. It is 500 times sweeter than cane sugar
C.It becomes bitter at cooking temperature
D. It reacts with the food at cooking temperature
AnswerA. It is unstable to heat and decomposes at cooking temperature

18. Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice

Column I Column II
A. CH3(CH2)10CH2OSO3Na+ i. Cationic detergents
B. [CH3(CH2)15N(CH3)2-CH3]+Br ii. Non-ionic detergents
C. CH3(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O)nCH2CH2OH iii. Soap
D. C17H35COONa iv. Anionic detergents
A. (A) = (iii), (B) = (ii), (C) = (iv), (D) = (i)
B. (A) = (ii), (B) = (iv), (C) = (i), (D) = (iii)
C. (A) = (i), (B) = (iii), (C) = (iv), (D) = (ii)
D. (A) = (iv), (B) = (i), (C) = (ii), (D) = (iii)
AnswerD. (A) = (iv), (B) = (i), (C) = (ii), (D) = (iii)

19. Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
A. Sodium perborate i. Disinfectant
B. Chlorine ii. Antiseptic
C. Bithional iii. Milk bleaching agent
D. Potassium stearate  iv. Soap
A. (A) = (i), (B) = (ii), (C) = (iii), (D) = (iv)
B. (A) = (ii), (B) = (iii), (C) = (iv), (D) = (i)
C. (A) = (iii), (B) = (i), (C) = (ii), (D) = (iv)
D. (A) = (iv), (B) = (i), (C) = (ii), (D) = (iii)
AnswerC. (A) = (iii), (B) = (i), (C) = (ii), (D) = (iv)

20. Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer?

A. Nylon-6, 6
B. Nylon-6
C. Dacron
D. Buna-S
AnswerD. Buna-S

21. Synthetic polymer which resembles natural rubber is

A. Neoprene
B. Chloroprene 
C. Glyptal 
D. Nylon 
AnswerA. Neoprene

22. Which of the following sets contain only addition homopolymers?

A. Polythene, natural rubber, cellulose
B. Nylon, polyester, melamine resin
C. Teflon, bakelite orlon
D.Neoprene, PVC, polythene
AnswerD.Neoprene, PVC, polythene

23. The secondary structure of protein is represented by

A. Alpha-helix structure
B. Beta-pleated structure
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
AnswerC. Both (A) and (B)

24. Uridine present in RNA is

A. nucleotides
B. pyrimidine
C. purine
D. nucleoside
AnswerD. nucleoside

25. How many molecules of phenyl hydrazine react with glucose to produce glucosazone?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
AnswerA. 3

26. Which of the following is the correct formulation of the entity according to IUPAC?

A. [(Co(CN)6)]3-
B. [Co(CN)6]3-
C. [Co(CN)6]3-
D. [Co(CN)6]3-
AnswerB. [Co(CN)6]3-

27. Identify the correct naming for K3[Fe(CN)6].

A. Tripotassium hexacyanidoferrate(III)
B. Potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
C. Tripotassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
D. Potassium hexacyanidoferrate(III)
AnswerD. Potassium hexacyanidoferrate(III)

28. Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)6]3-

A. It is sp2d2 hybridised, tetrahedral
B. It is d2sp3 hybridised, octahedral
C. It is dsp2 hybridised, square planar
D. It is sp3d2 hybridised octahedral
AnswerB. It is d2sp3 hybridised, octahedral

29. Secondary amines could be prepared by

A. Reduction of nitriles
B. Hofmann bromamide reduction
C. Reduction of amides
D. Reduction of isonitriles
AnswerD. Reduction of isonitriles

30. Identify the correct IUPAC name for the given compound.

A. Butane-1,4-diol
B. Butane-diol
C. Butylene glycol
D. Butane-1,3-diol
AnswerD. Butane-1,3-diol

31. Hydrocarbons are formed when aldehydes and ketones are reacted with KOH and ethylene glycol. The reaction is called

A. Cannizzaro reaction
B. Clemmensen reduction
C. Rosenmund reduction
D. Wolff-Kishner reduction
AnswerD. Wolff-Kishner reduction

32. Which of the following will not give aldol condensation?

A. Phenyl acetaldehyde
B. 2-Methylpentanal
C. Benzaldehyde
D. 1-Phenylpropanone
AnswerC. Benzaldehyde

33. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is

A Phenol < Ethanol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
B. Ethanol < Phenol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
C. Ethanol < Phenol < Acetic acid < Chloroacetic acid
D. Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid < Phenol < Ethanol
AnswerC. Ethanol < Phenol < Acetic acid < Chloroacetic acid

34. Aldehydes other than formaldehyde react with Grignard’s reagent to give addition products which on hydrolysis give

A. tertiary alcohols
B. secondary alcohols
C. primary alcohols 
D. carboxylic acids.
AnswerB. secondary alcohols

35. Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction?

A. C6H5CH(C6H5)Br
B. C6H5CH(CH3)Br
C. C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br
D. C6H5CH2Br
AnswerC. C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br

36. Which of the following is an example of nuleophilic substitution reaction?

A. RX + KOH → ROH + KX
B. 2RX + 2Na → R-R + 2NaX
C. RX + H2 → R-H + HX
D. RX + Mg → RMgX
AnswerA. RX + KOH → ROH + KX

37. The compound that responds to Tollen’s test is

A. CH3COCH3
B. CH3CHO
C. CH3COOH
D. C2H5OC2H5
AnswerB. CH3CHO

38. When treated with alkali and iodine, what substance will not give iodoform test?

A. Acetone
B. Ethanol
C. Diethyl ketone
D. Isopropyl alcohol
AnswerC. Diethyl ketone

39. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (III) chloride giving ortho and para halo compounds. The reaction is

A. Electrophilic elimination reaction
B. Electrophilic substitution reaction
C. Free radical addition reaction
D. Nucleophilic substitution reaction
AnswerB. Electrophilic substitution reaction

40. What is the test to differentiate between pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one?

A. Iodoform test
B. Benedict’s test
C. Fehling’s test
D. Aldol condensation
AnswerA. Iodoform test

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (41-45)
Ozone is an unstable, dark blue diamagnetic gas. It absorbs the UV radiation strongly, thus protecting the people on earth from the harmful UV-radiation from the sun. The use of chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) in aerosol and refrigerator and their subsequent escape into the atmosphere, is blamed for making holes in the ozone layer over the Antarctica. Ozone acts as a strong oxidising agent in acidic and alkaline medium. For this property, ozone is used as a germicide and disinfectant for sterilizing water. It is also used in laboratory for the ozonolysis of organic compounds and in industry for the manufacture of potassium permanganate, artificial silk, etc.
The following questions are multiple-choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer:

41.  Which of the following statements is not correct for ozone?

A. It ixidises lead sulphide
B. It oxidises potassium iodide
C. It oxidises mercury
D. It cannot act as bleaching agent in dry state
AnswerA. It ixidises lead sulphide

42. Ozone gives carbonyl compounds with

A. alkyl chloride
B. alkanes
C. alkenes followed by decomposition with Zn/ H2O
D. alcohols followed by decomposition with Zn/H2O
AnswerC. alkenes followed by decomposition with Zn/ H2O

43. Ozone reacts with moist iodine gives

A. HI
B. HIO3
C. I2O5
D. I2O4
AnswerB. HIO3

44. Ozone acts as an oxidising agent due to

A. liberation of nascent oxygen
B. liberation of oxygen gas
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of these
AnswerA. liberation of nascent oxygen

45. The colour of ozone molecule is

A. white
B. blue
C. pale green
D. pale yellow
AnswerB. blue

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (46-50)
Adsorption depends on the nature of the adsorbent. The rough solid surface has more number of pores and adsorb more number of gases than the smooth surface. Most common adsorbents are silica gel, activated charcoal. The extent of adsorption also depends on the surface area of solid. Specific surface area of an adsorbent is the surface area available for adsorption per gram of the adsorbent. The greater the surface area of the solid, the greater would be the adsoprtion. Charcoal is a more effective adsorbent than solid wood. Desorption is a process of removing an adsorbed substance from a surface on which it is absorbed.
Physisorption is non-specific and any gas can be adsorbed. But the gases which are easily liquefiable (e.g., NH3, HCl, CO2) are adsorbed at a faster rate and to a large extent than the gases which are difficult to liquefy (e.g., H2, O2, N2). It depends on the critical temperature. Higher the critical temperature of a gas, more easily liquefiable it is and the more is the rate of adsorption. Chemisorption is specific in nature. Therefore, only those gases can be adsorbed which are capable of forming chemical bonds with the adsorbent.
The following questions are multiple-choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer:

46. Select the correct statement regarding desoprtion.

A. It is done by cooling or by increasing the pressure applied
B. It is done by cooling or by increasing the pressure applied
C. It is done by heating or by reducing the pressure applied
D. It is done by heating or by increasing the pressure applied
AnswerC. It is done by heating or by reducing the pressure applied

47. Which of the following statements regarding the physical adsorption of a gas on surface of solid is not correct?

A. On increasing temperature, adsorption increases continuously
B. Enthalpy changes are negative
C. It is non-specific in nature
D. It is reversible in nature
AnswerA. On increasing temperature, adsorption increases continuously

48. At the same temperature and pressure, select the correct order of adsorption of the following gases on the same mass of charcoal.

A. SO2 > CH4 > H2
B. CH4 > SO2 > H2
C. H2 > CH4 > SO2
D. CH4 > H2 > SO2
AnswerA. SO2 > CH4 > H2

49. Select the correct option among the following when adsorption of a gas on solid metal surface is spontaneous and exothermic.

A. ΔS increases
B. ΔS decreases
C. ΔG increases
D. ΔH decreases
AnswerB. ΔS decreases

50. Select the incorrect statement among the following

A. Physical adsorption occurs at a low temperature and chemisorption occurs at all temperature
B. In physisorption heat of adsorption is low while in chemisorption it is high
C. Chemisorption is irreversible and physisorption is reversible
D. Magnitude of chemisorption decreases with rise in temperature while physisorption increases with rise in temperature
AnswerD. Magnitude of chemisorption decreases with rise in temperature while physisorption increases with rise in temperature